Is cos(x)-cos(x)=2cos(x) ?

The answer to whether cos(x)-cos(x)=2cos(x) is False

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prove cos(x)-cos(x)=2cos(x)

prove

cos (x) - cos (x) = 2 cos (x)

False

Solution steps

cos (x) - cos (x) = 2 cos (x)

Show that the two sides are not equal

For

cos (x) - cos (x) = 2 cos (x)

plug in

x = 0

cos (0) - cos (0) = 0

cos (0) - cos (0)

Use the following trivial identity:

cos (0) = 1

cos (0)

cos (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} cos (x) 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} cos (x) - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2}

= 1

= 1 - 1

Simplify

= 0

2 cos (0) = 2

2 cos (0)

Use the following trivial identity:

cos (0) = 1

cos (0)

cos (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} cos (x) 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} cos (x) - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2}

= 1

= 2 \cdot 1

Simplify

= 2

The two sides are not equal

\Rightarrow False

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